pair at six francs. The income of the society remains the same, because the manufacturer has gained as much on two pair at three francs, as he gained on one pair at six francs." Thus far M. Say, though incorrect, is at least consistent. If value be the measure of riches, the society is equally rich, because the value of all its commodities is the same as before. But now for his inference. "But when the income remains the same, and productions fall in price, the society is really enriched. If the same fall took place in all commodities at the same time, which is not absolutely impossible, the society by procuring at half their former price, all the objects of its consumption, without having lost any portion of its income, would really be twice as rich as before, and could purchase twice the quantity of goods."
In the first passage we are told, that if every thing fell to half its value, from abundance, the society would be equally rich, because there would be double the quantity of commodities at half their former value, or in other words, there would be the same value. But in the last passage we are informed, that by doubling the quantity of commodities, although the value of each commodity should be diminished one half, and therefore the value of all the commodities together be precisely the same as before, yet the society would be twice as rich as before. In the first case riches are estimated by the amount of value: in the second, they are estimated by the abundance of commodities contributing to human enjoyments. M. Say further says, "that a man is infinitely rich without valuables, if he can for nothing obtain all the objects he desires; yet in another place we are told, "that riches consist, not in the product itself, for it is not riches if it have not value, but in its value." Vol. ii. p. 2.